Cases of QT prolongation and/or torsade de pointes have been reported in patients receiving droperidol at doses at or below recommended doses. Some cases have occurred in patients with no known risk factors for QT prolongation, and some cases have been fatal.
Due to its potential for serious proarrhythmic effects and death, reserve droperidol for use in the treatment of patients who fail to show an acceptable response to other adequate treatments, either because of insufficient effectiveness or the inability to achieve an effective dose due to intolerable adverse effects from those drugs.
Cases of QT prolongation and serious arrhythmias (eg, torsade de pointes) have been reported in patients treated with droperidol. Based on these reports, all patients should undergo a 12-lead ECG prior to administration of droperidol to determine if a prolonged QT interval (ie, QTc greater than 440 msec for males or 450 msec for females) is present. If there is a prolonged QT interval, do not administer droperidol. For patients in whom the potential benefit of droperidol treatment is felt to outweigh the risks of potentially serious arrhythmias, perform ECG monitoring prior to treatment and continue for 2 to 3 hours after completing treatment to monitor for arrhythmias.
Droperidol is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected QT prolongation, including patients with congenital long QT syndrome.
Administer droperidol with extreme caution to patients who may be at risk for development of prolonged QT syndrome (eg, congestive heart failure, bradycardia, use of a diuretic, cardiac hypertrophy, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, or administration of other drugs known to increase the QT interval). Other risk factors may include age greater than 65 years, alcohol abuse, and use of agents such as benzodiazepines, volatile anesthetics, and IV opiates. Initiate droperidol at a low dose and adjust upward, with caution, as needed to achieve the desired effect.
Note: Monitor vital signs and ECG at baseline and routinely.
Agitation, acute (undifferentiated) (off-label use):
IM: Initial: 5 to 10 mg, as monotherapy or in combination with a benzodiazepine; wait at least 10 to 30 minutes before providing additional medications for agitation if needed (Ref).
IV: Initial: 2.5 to 10 mg, as monotherapy or in combination with a benzodiazepine; may repeat droperidol dose every 5 minutes until sedation achieved; maximum dose 20 mg per episode; median required dose was 10 mg in one study (Ref).
Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV):
IV: 0.625 to 1.25 mg administered at the end of procedure (Ref).
Manufacturer labeling: Dosing in the prescribing information may not reflect current clinical practice.
IM/IV: Maximum initial dose: 2.5 mg; additional doses of 1.25 mg may be administered with caution to achieve desired effect.
Dosage adjustment for concomitant therapy: Significant drug interactions exist, requiring dose/frequency adjustment or avoidance. Consult drug interactions database for more information.
There are no dosage adjustments provided in the manufacturer’s labeling; use with caution.
There are no dosage adjustments provided in the manufacturer’s labeling; use with caution.
Note: Avoid for behavioral problems associated with dementia or delirium unless alternative nonpharmacologic therapies have failed and patient may harm self or others. If used, consider deprescribing attempts to assess continued need and/or lowest effective dose (Ref).
Refer to adult dosing; use reduced initial dose.
(For additional information see "Droperidol: Pediatric drug information")
Dosage must be individualized based on age, body weight, underlying medical conditions, physical status, concomitant medications, type of anesthesia, and surgical procedure.
Agitation, acute: Limited data available; dosing regimen variable; optimal dose not established (Ref):
Weight-directed dosing: Children ≥7 years and Adolescents: IM, IV: 0.1 to 0.2 mg/kg/dose; maximum dose: 10 mg/dose; dosing based on management of prehospital agitation by emergency medical services (n=96) (Ref). Note: Although not described in the trial, may also administer IV if route is feasible (Ref).
Fixed dosing:
Children ≥7 years and Adolescents: May repeat dose in 15 to 30 minutes if no response (Ref).
<34 kg: IM, IV: 0.625 mg.
34 to 57 kg: IM, IV: 1.25 mg.
>57 to 68 kg: IM, IV: 1.875 mg.
>68 kg: IM, IV: 2.5 mg.
Dosing reported in an inpatient psychiatric setting to manage agitation in patients (n=26) with an underlying psychiatric disorder. Note: Although not described in the trial, may also administer IV if route is feasible (Ref).
Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV); rescue treatment: Note: Not routinely used for prevention; however, droperidol may be necessary as rescue therapy (Ref).
Children ≥2 years and Adolescents: IM, IV: 0.01 to 0.075 mg/kg/dose; maximum dose: 1.25 mg/dose; administer additional doses with extreme caution and only if potential benefit outweighs risks (Ref).
Dosage adjustment for concomitant therapy: Significant drug interactions exist, requiring dose/frequency adjustment or avoidance. Consult drug interactions database for more information.
There are no dosage adjustments provided in the manufacturer’s labeling; use with caution.
There are no dosage adjustments provided in the manufacturer’s labeling; use with caution.
The following adverse drug reactions are derived from product labeling unless otherwise specified.
Postmarketing:
Cardiovascular: Cardiac arrhythmia (including ventricular arrhythmia), hypotension (Chase 2002), prolonged QT interval on ECG (Cole 2020), tachycardia, torsades de pointes (Cole 2020), ventricular tachycardia (Takechi 2021)
Hypersensitivity: Anaphylaxis
Nervous system: Anxiety (Lim 1999), chills, depression, dizziness (Henzi 2000), drowsiness (Henzi 2000), dysphoria (Lim 1999), extrapyramidal reaction (including akathisia, dystonia) (Melnick 1988), hallucination, hyperactive behavior, neuroleptic malignant syndrome (So 2001), restlessness (Henzi 2000), sedated state (Henzi 2000), shivering, vertigo (Henzi 2000)
Neuromuscular & skeletal: Laryngospasm
Respiratory: Bronchospasm, respiratory depression (Ramsden 2022)
Hypersensitivity to droperidol or any component of the formulation; known or suspected QT prolongation, including congenital long QT syndrome (prolonged QTc is defined as >440 msec in males or >450 msec in females)
Canadian labeling: Additional contraindications (not in US labeling): Not for use in children ≤2 years of age
Concerns related to adverse effects:
• Arrhythmias: Use extreme caution in patients with bradycardia (<50 bpm), cardiac disease, concurrent MAO inhibitor therapy, Class I and Class III antiarrhythmics or other drugs known to prolong QT interval, and electrolyte disturbances (hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia), including concomitant drugs which may alter electrolytes (diuretics).
• Anticholinergic effects: May cause anticholinergic effects (constipation, xerostomia, blurred vision, urinary retention); use with caution in patients with decreased gastrointestinal motility, urinary retention, BPH, xerostomia, or visual problems. Relative to other antipsychotics, droperidol has a low potency of cholinergic blockade (Richelson 1999).
• CNS depression: May cause CNS depression, which may impair physical or mental abilities; patients must be cautioned about performing tasks that require mental alertness (eg, operating machinery or driving).
• Esophageal dysmotility/aspiration: Antipsychotic use has been associated with esophageal dysmotility and aspiration; risk increases with age. Use with caution in patients at risk for aspiration pneumonia (eg, Alzheimer disease), particularly in patients >75 years (Herzig 2017; Maddalena 2004).
• Extrapyramidal symptoms: May cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), including pseudoparkinsonism, acute dystonic reactions, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia (risk of these reactions is generally much lower relative to typical/conventional antipsychotics; frequencies reported are similar to placebo). Risk of dystonia (and possibly other EPS) may be greater with increased doses, use of conventional antipsychotics, males, and younger patients. Factors associated with greater vulnerability to tardive dyskinesia include older in age, female gender combined with postmenopausal status, Parkinson disease, pseudoparkinsonism symptoms, affective disorders (particularly major depressive disorder), concurrent medical diseases such as diabetes, previous brain damage, alcohol use disorder, poor treatment response, and use of high doses of antipsychotics (APA [Keepers 2020]; Soares-Weiser 2007). Consider therapy discontinuation with signs/symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.
• Falls: May increase the risk for falls due to somnolence, orthostatic hypotension, and motor or sensory instability (Landi 2005; Seppala 2018).
• Hyperprolactinemia: May increase prolactin levels; clinical significance of hyperprolactinemia in patients with breast cancer or other prolactin-dependent tumors is unknown (Bargiota 2013; Froes Brandao 2016).
• Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS): Use may be associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS); monitor for mental status changes, fever, muscle rigidity and/or autonomic instability.
• Orthostatic hypotension: May cause orthostatic hypotension; use with caution in patients at risk of this effect or in those who would not tolerate transient hypotensive episodes (cerebrovascular disease, cardiovascular disease, hypovolemia, or concurrent medication use which may predispose to hypotension/bradycardia).
• Temperature regulation: Impaired core body temperature regulation may occur; caution with strenuous exercise, heat exposure, dehydration, and concomitant medication possessing anticholinergic effects.
Disease-related concerns:
• Hepatic impairment: Use with caution in patients with severe hepatic impairment.
• Pheochromocytoma: Use with caution in patients with pheochromocytoma; severe hypertension and/or tachycardia may occur.
• Renal impairment: Use with caution in patients with renal impairment.
• Seizures: Use with caution in patients at risk of seizures, including those with a history of seizures, head trauma, brain damage, alcohol use disorder, or concurrent therapy with medications which may lower seizure threshold (Chase 2002).
Excipient information presented when available (limited, particularly for generics); consult specific product labeling.
Solution, Injection [preservative free]:
Generic: 2.5 mg/mL (1 mL, 2 mL)
Yes
Solution (droPERidol Injection)
2.5 mg/mL (per mL): $5.81 - $6.38
Disclaimer: A representative AWP (Average Wholesale Price) price or price range is provided as reference price only. A range is provided when more than one manufacturer's AWP price is available and uses the low and high price reported by the manufacturers to determine the range. The pricing data should be used for benchmarking purposes only, and as such should not be used alone to set or adjudicate any prices for reimbursement or purchasing functions or considered to be an exact price for a single product and/or manufacturer. Medi-Span expressly disclaims all warranties of any kind or nature, whether express or implied, and assumes no liability with respect to accuracy of price or price range data published in its solutions. In no event shall Medi-Span be liable for special, indirect, incidental, or consequential damages arising from use of price or price range data. Pricing data is updated monthly.
IM, IV: Administer IM or IV; according to the manufacturer, IV push administration should be slow.
Parenteral: Administer undiluted IM or by slow IV injection over 2 to 5 minutes.
Postoperative nausea/vomiting (PONV): Prevention and/or treatment of nausea and vomiting from surgical and diagnostic procedures
Acute undifferentiated agitation
DroPERidol may be confused with droNABinol
Beers Criteria: Antipsychotics are identified in the Beers Criteria as potentially inappropriate medications to be avoided in patients 65 years and older due to an increased risk of stroke and a greater rate of cognitive decline and mortality in patients with dementia. Evidence also suggests there may be an increased risk of mortality with use independent of dementia. Avoid antipsychotics for behavioral problems associated with dementia or delirium unless alternative nonpharmacologic therapies have failed and patient may harm self or others. In addition, antipsychotics should be used with caution in older adults due to their potential to cause or exacerbate syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) or hyponatremia; monitor sodium closely with initiation or dosage adjustments in older adults. Use of antipsychotics may be appropriate for labeled indications including schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, Parkinson disease psychosis, adjunctive therapy in major depressive disorder, or for short-term use as an antiemetic (Beers Criteria [AGS 2023]).
None known.
Note: Interacting drugs may not be individually listed below if they are part of a group interaction (eg, individual drugs within “CYP3A4 Inducers [Strong]” are NOT listed). For a complete list of drug interactions by individual drug name and detailed management recommendations, use the drug interactions program by clicking on the “Launch drug interactions program” link above.
Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential: May increase adverse/toxic effects of DroPERidol. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Amifampridine: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase neuroexcitatory and/or seizure-potentiating effects of Amifampridine. Risk C: Monitor
Amisulpride (Injection): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of DroPERidol. Risk X: Avoid
Amisulpride (Oral): Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Amisulpride (Oral). Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Amisulpride (Oral): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Agents (Moderate Risk). Risk C: Monitor
Anti-Parkinson Agents (Dopamine Agonist): Antipsychotic Agents (First Generation [Typical]) may decrease therapeutic effects of Anti-Parkinson Agents (Dopamine Agonist). Management: Avoid concomitant therapy if possible. If antipsychotic use is necessary, consider using atypical antipsychotics such as clozapine, quetiapine, or ziprasidone at lower initial doses, or a non-dopamine antagonist (eg, pimavanserin). Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
ARIPiprazole Lauroxil: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of ARIPiprazole Lauroxil. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
ARIPiprazole: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of ARIPiprazole. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Azithromycin (Systemic): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Benperidol: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Benperidol. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Benzgalantamine-Galantamine: May increase neurotoxic (central) effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Risk C: Monitor
Blonanserin: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Blonanserin. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Bornaprine: May increase adverse/toxic effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Specifically, tardive dyskinesia symptoms may be potentiated. Risk C: Monitor
Brexpiprazole: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Brexpiprazole. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Bromopride: DroPERidol may increase adverse/toxic effects of Bromopride. Risk X: Avoid
Bromperidol: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Bromperidol. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
BuPROPion: May increase neuroexcitatory and/or seizure-potentiating effects of Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential. Risk C: Monitor
Cabergoline: May decrease therapeutic effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Risk X: Avoid
Cariprazine: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Cariprazine. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Ceritinib: May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
ChlorproMAZINE: DroPERidol may increase QTc-prolonging effects of ChlorproMAZINE. DroPERidol may increase CNS depressant effects of ChlorproMAZINE. Management: Consider alternatives to this drug combination. If combined, dose reductions are recommended. Monitor for additive toxicities such as QTc interval prolongation, ventricular arrhythmias, and CNS depression. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
Clarithromycin: QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Clarithromycin. Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
CNS Depressants: DroPERidol may increase CNS depressant effects of CNS Depressants. Management: Consider dose reductions of droperidol or of other CNS agents (eg, opioids, barbiturates) with concomitant use. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
Dexmethylphenidate-Methylphenidate: Antipsychotic Agents may increase adverse/toxic effects of Dexmethylphenidate-Methylphenidate. Dexmethylphenidate-Methylphenidate may increase adverse/toxic effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Specifically, the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms may be increased when these agents are combined. Risk C: Monitor
Domperidone: QT-prolonging Agents (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Domperidone. Risk X: Avoid
Donepezil: May increase neurotoxic (central) effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Risk C: Monitor
Encorafenib: May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Fexinidazole: QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Fexinidazole. Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Fluorouracil Products: QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Fluorouracil Products. Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Guanethidine: Antipsychotic Agents may decrease therapeutic effects of Guanethidine. Risk C: Monitor
Huperzine A: May increase neurotoxic (central) effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Risk C: Monitor
Iohexol: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Iohexol. Specifically, the risk for seizures may be increased. Management: Discontinue agents that may lower the seizure threshold 48 hours prior to intrathecal use of iohexol. Wait at least 24 hours after the procedure to resume such agents. In nonelective procedures, consider use of prophylactic antiseizure drugs. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
Iomeprol: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Iomeprol. Specifically, the risk for seizures may be increased. Management: Discontinue agents that may lower the seizure threshold 48 hours prior to intrathecal use of iomeprol. Wait at least 24 hours after the procedure to resume such agents. In nonelective procedures, consider use of prophylactic antiseizure drugs. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
Iopamidol: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Iopamidol. Specifically, the risk for seizures may be increased. Management: Discontinue agents that may lower the seizure threshold 48 hours prior to intrathecal use of iopamidol. Wait at least 24 hours after the procedure to resume such agents. In nonelective procedures, consider use of prophylactic antiseizure drugs. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
Levoketoconazole: QT-prolonging Agents (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Levoketoconazole. Risk X: Avoid
Lithium: May increase neurotoxic effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Lithium may decrease serum concentration of Antipsychotic Agents. Specifically noted with chlorpromazine. Risk C: Monitor
Lonafarnib: May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Metergoline: Antipsychotic Agents may decrease therapeutic effects of Metergoline. Metergoline may decrease therapeutic effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Risk C: Monitor
Methadone: DroPERidol may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Methadone. DroPERidol may increase CNS depressant effects of Methadone. Management: Consider alternatives. If combined, dose reductions are recommended. Monitor for additive toxicities such as QTc interval prolongation, ventricular arrhythmias, and CNS depression. Patients with additional risk factors are at even higher risk. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
Metoclopramide: DroPERidol may increase adverse/toxic effects of Metoclopramide. Risk X: Avoid
MetyroSINE: May increase adverse/toxic effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Specifically, the risk for extrapyramidal symptoms and excessive sedation may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Ondansetron: May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation, ventricular arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes, when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Pentamidine (Systemic): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Periciazine: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Periciazine. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Perphenazine: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Perphenazine. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Pimozide: May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Agents (Moderate Risk). Risk X: Avoid
Pipamperone: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Pipamperone. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk X: Avoid
Piperaquine: QT-prolonging Agents (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Piperaquine. Risk X: Avoid
Piribedil: Antipsychotic Agents may decrease therapeutic effects of Piribedil. Piribedil may decrease therapeutic effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Management: Use of piribedil with antiemetic neuroleptics is contraindicated, and use with antipsychotic neuroleptics, except for clozapine, is not recommended. Risk X: Avoid
Polyethylene Glycol-Electrolyte Solution: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Polyethylene Glycol-Electrolyte Solution. Specifically, the risk of seizure may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Promazine: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Promazine. Specifically, the risk of seizures may be increased. Risk C: Monitor
Propofol: DroPERidol may increase CNS depressant effects of Propofol. Propofol may increase QTc-prolonging effects of DroPERidol. Management: Consider dose reductions of droperidol or propofol during coadministration due to additive effects on CNS depression. Also monitor for QTc prolongation and ventricular arrhythmia. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
QT-prolonging Agents (Highest Risk): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of DroPERidol. Management: Consider alternatives to this combination. Patients with other risk factors (eg, older age, female sex, bradycardia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, heart disease, and higher drug concentrations) are likely at greater risk for these toxicities. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
QT-prolonging Antidepressants (Moderate Risk): QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antidepressants (Moderate Risk). QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk) may increase serotonergic effects of QT-prolonging Antidepressants (Moderate Risk). This could result in serotonin syndrome. Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation, ventricular arrhythmias, and serotonin syndrome/serotonin toxicity (SS/ST) or NMS when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation or SS/ST may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
QT-prolonging Class IC Antiarrhythmics (Moderate Risk): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
QT-Prolonging Inhalational Anesthetics (Moderate Risk): DroPERidol may increase CNS depressant effects of QT-Prolonging Inhalational Anesthetics (Moderate Risk). DroPERidol may increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-Prolonging Inhalational Anesthetics (Moderate Risk). Management: Consider dose reductions and monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
QT-prolonging Kinase Inhibitors (Moderate Risk): QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Kinase Inhibitors (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
QT-prolonging Miscellaneous Agents (Moderate Risk): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
QT-prolonging Moderate CYP3A4 Inhibitors (Moderate Risk): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
QT-prolonging Quinolone Antibiotics (Moderate Risk): May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Quinagolide: Antipsychotic Agents may decrease therapeutic effects of Quinagolide. Risk C: Monitor
Rivastigmine: May increase neurotoxic (central) effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Risk C: Monitor
Saquinavir: QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Saquinavir. Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Serotonergic Agents (High Risk): May increase adverse/toxic effects of Antipsychotic Agents. Specifically, serotonergic agents may enhance dopamine blockade, possibly increasing the risk for neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Antipsychotic Agents may increase serotonergic effects of Serotonergic Agents (High Risk). This could result in serotonin syndrome. Risk C: Monitor
Sertindole: May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Agents (Moderate Risk). Risk X: Avoid
Sodium Phosphates: Agents With Seizure Threshold Lowering Potential may increase adverse/toxic effects of Sodium Phosphates. Specifically, the risk of seizure or loss of consciousness may be increased in patients with significant sodium phosphate-induced fluid or electrolyte abnormalities. Risk C: Monitor
Sulpiride: Antipsychotic Agents may increase adverse/toxic effects of Sulpiride. Risk X: Avoid
Thiopental: DroPERidol may increase therapeutic effects of Thiopental. Management: Consider thiopental dose reduction when used concomitantly with droperidol. Monitor patient response to treatment closely if using this combination. Risk D: Consider Therapy Modification
Thioridazine: QT-prolonging Agents (Moderate Risk) may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Thioridazine. Risk X: Avoid
Voriconazole: May increase QTc-prolonging effects of QT-prolonging Antipsychotics (Moderate Risk). Management: Monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias when these agents are combined. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk C: Monitor
Ziprasidone: DroPERidol may increase QTc-prolonging effects of Ziprasidone. Management: Consider alternatives to this drug combination. If combined, monitor for QTc interval prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias. Patients with additional risk factors for QTc prolongation may be at even higher risk. Risk X: Avoid
Droperidol has been evaluated for the adjunctive management of hyperemesis gravidarum (Ferreira 2003; Nageotte 1996); however, use for the treatment of persistent symptoms of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy is not recommended (ACOG 189 2018).
It is not known if droperidol is present in breast milk.
Adverse events were observed in breastfed infants following maternal administration during cesarean delivery (based on Neurologic and Adaptive Capacity Scores); however, additional study is needed (Bonhomme 2002). Theoretically, droperidol may interfere with milk production. Although data is limited, infant exposure following a single maternal dose will limit the potential for adverse events in a breastfed infant (Spigset 1994). The manufacturer recommends that caution be exercised when administering droperidol to breastfeeding women.
Frequency of Antipsychotic Monitoring in Droperidola,b | ||
---|---|---|
Monitoring Parameter |
Frequency of Monitoring |
Comments |
a For all monitoring parameters, it is appropriate for check at baseline and when clinically relevant (based on symptoms or suspected adverse reactions) in addition to the timeline. | ||
b ADA 2004; APA [Keepers 2020]; Landi 2005; Seppala 2018; manufacturer's labeling. | ||
c Risk factors for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) include prior history of EPS, high doses of antipsychotics, young age (children and adolescents at higher risk than adults), and dopaminergic affinity of individual antipsychotic. | ||
d Risk factors for tardive dyskinesia include age >55 years; females; White or African ethnicity; presence of a mood disorder, intellectual disability, or CNS injury; and past or current EPS. | ||
e Cardiac risk factors include congenital long QT syndrome, structural or functional cardiac disease, bradycardia, family history of sudden cardiac death | ||
Adherence |
Every visit |
|
Blood chemistries (electrolytes, renal function, liver function, TSH) |
As clinically indicated |
|
CBC |
As clinically indicated |
Check frequently during the first few months of therapy in patients with preexisting low WBC or history of drug-induced leukopenia/neutropenia |
ECG |
Continue monitoring for 2 to 3 hours following administration, and as clinically indicated |
Check after significant dose increase or new QTc-prolonging medication if there are cardiac risk factors.e |
Extrapyramidal symptoms |
Every visit; 4 weeks after initiation and dose change; annually. Use a formalized rating scale at least annually or every 6 months if high risk.c |
|
Fall risk |
As clinically indicated |
Evaluate regularly in patients ≥60 years of age. |
Fasting plasma glucose/HbA1c |
4 months after initiation; annually |
Check more frequently than annually if abnormal. Follow diabetes guidelines. |
Lipid panel |
4 months after initiation; annually |
Check more frequently than annually if abnormal. Follow lipid guidelines. |
Mental status and alertness |
Every visit |
|
Metabolic syndrome history |
Annually |
Evaluate for personal and family history of obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, hypertension, or cardiovascular disease. |
Ocular exam |
As clinically indicated |
Particularly important for those taking thioridazine or chlorpromazine, or those with diabetes and other conditions that impact sight. |
Prolactin |
Ask about symptoms at every visit until dose is stable. Check prolactin level if symptoms are reported. |
Hyperprolactinemia symptoms: Changes in menstruation, libido, gynecomastia, development of galactorrhea, and erectile and ejaculatory function. |
Tardive dyskinesia |
Every visit; annually. Use a formalized rating scale at least annually or every 6 months if high risk.d |
|
Vital signs (BP, orthostatics, temperature, pulse, signs of infection) |
As clinically indicated |
|
Weight/Height/BMI |
Every visit for first 6 months, then quarterly |
Consider monitoring waist circumference at baseline and annually, especially in patients with or at risk for metabolic syndrome. Consider changing antipsychotic if BMI increases by ≥1 unit. |
Droperidol is a butyrophenone antipsychotic; antiemetic effect is a result of blockade of dopamine stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Other effects include alpha-adrenergic blockade, peripheral vascular dilation, and reduction of the pressor effect of epinephrine resulting in hypotension and decreased peripheral vascular resistance; may also reduce pulmonary artery pressure
Onset of action: 3 to 10 minutes
Peak effect: ~30 minutes
Duration: 2 to 4 hours, may extend to 12 hours
Absorption: IM: Rapid (Cressman 1973)
Distribution: Crosses blood-brain barrier (McKeage 2006)
Vd: Children: ~0.6 L/kg; Adults: ~1.5 L/kg (McKeage 2006)
Protein binding: 85% to 90% (McKeage 2006)
Metabolism: Hepatic, to p-fluorophenylacetic acid, benzimidazolone, p-hydroxypiperidine
Half-life elimination: Children ~ 1.7 hours; Adults: ~2 hours (McKeage 2006)
Excretion: Urine (75%, <1% as unchanged drug); feces (22%, 11% as unchanged drug) (McKeage 2006)